A 20-year-old male presents with right posterior thigh pain and difficulty walking after he felt a “pop” while sprinting in a race. An ultrasound of the right posterior thigh is performed and the above image is seen on the transverse view without compression (Image 1. ST- semitendinosus; BF – bicep femoris; H – hematoma. Courtesy of Matthew Negaard, MD).
A 42-year-old patient is brought in by EMS after jumping off of a two-story building. The primary survey is intact and the secondary survey demonstrates swelling, ecchymosis, and tenderness to the right heel. You obtain foot x-rays and see the following images (Image 1. Lateral view of the right foot. Author’s own images).
Image 2. Fracture of scaphoid. Case courtesy of Dr. Hani Makky ALSALAM, Radiopaedia.org, rID: 10398 (arrow added by authors).
Occurs when there is an axial load across hyper-dorsiflexed, pronated and ulnar deviated wrists or from a fall on the outstretched hand (FOOSH) [1-3].
Snuff box tenderness, scaphoid tubercle tenderness over the volar aspect of the wrist, and/or positive scaphoid compression test (pain reproduced with an axial load applied through thumb metacarpal) [4-6].
Image 3. Location of scaphoid tubercle (S) at the base of the thenar eminence (left) and the location of the snuffbox (SB) on the radial aspect of the wrist (right). Images by authors.
Plain film imaging with anterior-posterior, oblique, and lateral views to assess for injury.
Abnormal exam: If not neurovascularly intact or if there is an open fracture, consult orthopedics in the ED.
Identified scaphoid fracture: Thumb spica splint and prompt orthopedic follow-up usually within 1-3 days as though some fractures only require immobilization for treatment; surgery may be required for some fracture patterns [1-3,6].
Suspicion for fracture without radiographic evidence: Place in thumb spica splint and repeat imaging in 14 days to evaluate for occult fracture. If negative again at that time with high clinical suspicion, the patient should have an outpatient MRI [1-3,6].
Classic complications include vascular necrosis (AVN), and scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC). Associated fractures and dislocation of the surrounding carpal bones, distal radius, ligamentous disruption may be seen as other pathology occurs secondary to a FOOSH [1-4,6].
For a review of other causes of traumatic wrist pain check out the SplintER archives.
A 17-year-old male baseball catcher presents with right knee pain after an opponent slid into home plate, striking the anteromedial aspect of the patient’s knee while it was in extension trying to block the plate. An x-ray of the tibia and fibula was obtained (courtesy of Dr. Haytham Bedier, Radiopaedia.org).
This is a proximal avulsion fracture of the styloid process of the fibula, indicating injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee [1].
This injury usually occurs from varus stress in a hyperextended knee- think a blow to the anteromedial tibia with the knee in extension [2].
The arcuate sign is a horizontal linear lucency through the head of the fibula that represents a fracture of the styloid process [3].
A proximal fibular avulsion fracture is commonly associated with injury to the posterior cruciate ligament, anterior cruciate ligament, popliteus, or meniscus. It is frequently seen with bone contusions and sometimes a tibial plateau fracture [2].
This injury indicates potential significant instability of the knee and requires outpatient follow-up with MRI. Operative management will be dictated on an individual basis, after evaluating MRI results. In the emergency department, place the patient in a knee immobilizer and recommend non-weight-bearing status until further imaging. Follow-up with orthopedics or sports medicine within 1 week.
If diagnosis of this injury is delayed, posterolateral instability may develop. If not recognized and managed appropriately, this may hinder the success of a cruciate ligament reconstruction [1].
Want more information about the knee exam? Check out the SplintER archives.
A 30-year-old male presents with right shoulder pain after a motorcycle accident. You obtain shoulder x-rays and see the following images (Image 1: AP, scapular Y, and axillary views of the right shoulder. Author’s own images). What is the most likely diagnosis, typical mechanism of injury, expected physical exam findings, appropriate imaging modalities, and management plan?
A 70-year-old female presents with left elbow pain and deformity after falling on an outstretched hand. You obtain shoulder x-rays and see the above images. What is the most likely diagnosis, likely mechanism of injury, expected physical exam findings, and management plan? (Image 1: AP and lateral views of the left elbow. Author’s own images)
A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department (ED) with right hand pain after an e-bike accident. Physical exam shows deformity and tenderness at the 5th proximal phalanx. Radiographs are shown above (Image 1: Plain radiography of right hand with AP and oblique views. Author’s own images). What is the most likely diagnosis? What are the important aspects of the associated physical examination? What is the management in ED, including pain management? When do you consult orthopedics?
